Addendem 2: Rather than removing this article I chose to let it stand to show the evolution of the discussions that were going on at that time. I no longer regard Clark's position as Nestorianism, although I do think it needs further clarity. I also learned that I must differentiate between what Sean Gerety has said and what Drake Shelton says. Recently Shelton has been revealed as anti-trinitarian. 1/11/2012. See: Heresies: God's Hammer]
Sean Gerety, the owner of the God's Hammer blog cannot make up his mind if he is going to embrace the Definition of Chalcedon or Gordon H. Clark's definition of Christ as two separate persons. And in allowing Drake Shelton to openly say that there is no hypostatic union of the divine essence and the human essence (including a reasonable human soul) in the one Person of Jesus Christ Sean Gerety has crossed the line from equivocation and dissimulation to open heresy. You can judge for yourself below where Drake Shelton makes several exegetical and theological fallacies regarding the hypostatic union.
@lawyertheologian"But there isn't one common nature that a "divine Person" and a distinct "human person" can be united in"Not metaphysically, no. So what? Be careful you do not fall into a union of essence. Which is what you must do when you parallel the Trinity (the persons are unitd in essence) and the incarnation unions. Appollinarianism is the only choice then which leads straight to Arianism. My favorite answer so far is that the union is not of essence but its metaphysical. That's like saying its bacon but its not pork. What?"At best, all you have is a "divine Person" indwelling a distinct "human person" in a fleshly body, in direct opposition to Scripture: "And the Logos [the Second Person of the Trinity] became flesh" (John 1:14)"1. We can quote scripture as well: Col 2:9 for in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. I can support the "dwell" statement with this passage and you can support your Arianism "became" with your passage. What the bottom line is what do these words mean in the context of the whole Bible? Clear vs unclear. What is clear? God is immutable; God is three in one sense and One in another. All three persons are of equal power and glory. A change in the second Person necessarily posits a different deity than the father. Thus Arianism. Heresy, plain and simple.In Wallace's Greek grammar page 268 he comments on the meaning of "became" in John 1:14: In commenting on the definiteness of Theos in John 1 Wallace quoting Alford says in passing in a footnote: "Theos must then be taken as implying God, in substance and essence, -not ho theos, 'The Father' in person …as in sarz egeneto John 1:14 , sarz expresses that STATE into which the divine Word entered by a definite act, so in theos en, Theos expresses that ESSENCE which was his." Here there is no evidence that the Greek "sarz egeneto" means a metaphysical (substance/essence) union. He makes it clear by contrasting the State and the Essence. Earlier on page 264 he mentions "the Word partook of humanity" also not a help for your hypostatic metaphysical view.
Addendem 2: Rather than removing this article I chose to let it stand to show the evolution of the discussions that were going on at that time. I no longer regard Clark's position as Nestorianism, although I do think it needs further clarity.